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καλησπερα φιλε
cd τον Γιάννης Φλωρινιώτης "Παιδιά Της Νύχτας"
download link εδο
https://www.filefactory.com/file/2ghtgvlaa4yv/F.GIANNIS_- PAIDIA TIS NYXTAS (2003)_rr34.rar
fazz
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cv2416 joined the community
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OK. I still appreciate your replies. -
Hi Vincent, good luck with your move. I'm sure you'll have a wonderful time in Greece. Where will you be staying? Athens or somewhere else? In regards to your question about companies who can help you with clearing your container, I don't know of any but if you do a Google search there are a few that come up: https://www.google.com/search?q=clearance+of+our+container+in+Piraeus&oq=clearance+of+our+container+in+Piraeus You'll have to contact a few and also do your research to determine which one will the best option for you. Good luck!
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Sorry, I'm not a linguistics expert and I only have a basic understanding of ancient Greek grammar. Not sure why Josephus used it that way in his text. It may be dative. -
We own a house we are moving to Greece within a few months. This is a long project for us since we are planning to bring all our goods to our new home. I have done many searches as far as what we can or can't bring and also customs rules and regulations. We have contacted the Embassy of Greece and ask them to give us some more information. The link below was referred to us; https://usgshipping.com/shipping-to-europe-from-usa/shipping-to-southern-europe/shipping-to-greece-from-usa Anyway now we are already but we could not find yet a Company who can offer the clearance of our container in Pierus and delivery of it to our door. I am looking for a reliable customs broker in Greece who can help us with that process, If anyone can recommend someone please send me their information. Thank you all.
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Admin, how do you think that the last part could mean "to Caesar"? Isn't Καίσαρος genitive, making this "Coponius' opinion of Caesar"? ...λώσσης διδάξοντας τὸν Καίσαρα τὴν κακίαν τοῦ Ἀντιπάτρου καὶ Κωπωνίου γνώμη τὴν Καίσαρος. Or do you think that this could somehow be dative (to Caesar) like in Mark 12:17, αὐτοῖς Τὰ Καίσαρος ἀπόδοτε Καίσαρι (Render to Caesar the things that are Caesar's) It looks like Josephus' sentence literally says that Herod sent messengers to inform Caesar "about the villainy of Antipater and of Coponius opinion of the Emperor/Caesar." This does not make clear sense, although conceivably Josephus could have meant to say (A) that Herod's messengers told Caesar Coponius' opinion of Caesar, (B) that Herod's messengers told Caesar Coponius' opinion about Antipater, (C) that they told Caesar of the villainy both of Antipater and of Coponius for Caesar's judgment, or (D) that they told Caesar about the villainy of Antipater and told Coponius the judgment of Caesar.
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Yes, it looks like it's possessive.
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Good input, thanks. Does Κωπωνίου mean "Coponius' " as a possessive? I am trying to see why you read that as Coponius' opinion, rather than an accusative case grammatically, as in: "the wickedness of Antipater and [to inform] Coponius [of] the judgment of Caesar""
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I'd probably translate this (in this context...) as "Conopius' opinion to Caesar"
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In Book XVII, Chapter V.7 of his Antiquities of the Jews, Josephus writes about Herod's detention of Antipater: δήσας δὲ αὐτὸν εἰς Ῥώμην ὡς Καίσαρα ἐκπέμπει γράμματα περὶ αὐτοῦ καὶ τοὺς ἀπὸ γλώσσης διδάξοντας τὸν Καίσαρα τὴν κακίαν τοῦ Ἀντιπάτρου καὶ Κωπωνίου γνώμη τὴν Καίσαρος. In Loeb's edition, Ralph Marcus translates the sentence as: Marcus writes that the underlined Greek text is unintelligble and comes at the end of the sentence above. He includes this note: "codd.: om. PE Lat. : secl. edd." I take this to mean that the Latin books omit this ending. Κωπωνίου means Coponius. Earlier, in Book XIV, Chapter 8, Josephus had quoted the Roman senate's decree that was favorable to the Jews, which said, "There were present at the writing of this decree Lucius Coponius, the son of Lucius of the Colline tribe". Later, Josephus wrote that Coponius arrived with Cyrenius to take power in Judea. Under John Rhoad's theory, Cyrenius ruled Judea in Herod's time, and the underlined sentence would help confirm this theory. γνώμη is a Greek noun meaning judgment, opinion, decision. (https://biblehub.com/greek/1106.htm) τὴν means "the". Καίσαρος means Caesar. So word for word, doesn't the underlined ending mean "... and Coponius the judgment Caesar"? So is the best interpretation that Josephus saying that Herod sent messengers to inform Caesar of "the wickedness of Antipater and [to inform] Coponius [of] the judgment of Caesar"?
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Thanks for explaining. I agree. The text says that they have it, but it isn't clearly saying that they wrote it. eg. "I have the days of the year set down in my calendar." But I wasn't the one who put the days in the calendar.
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I have no idea. It's not a Greek word. I think I found the excerpt of the story you're taling about here: https://books.google.ca/books?id=MtMQBwAAQBAJ&pg=PA603&lpg=PA603&dq=μελεβετζίν&source=bl&ots=mCwWzBTnuu&sig=ACfU3U1NAnduortofKvgfHPaPaoZw3hxWg&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiFlZS9ybPlAhV9GDQIHYLWCU0Q6AEwAHoECAAQAQ#v=onepage&q=μελεβετζίν&f=false I read the whole paragraph but I still can't tell what this word means. It's definitely not a Greek word, maybe it's Turkish or middle eastern in origin.
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Hello, I am currently translating excerpt from work of Nikolaos Politis into my native language and I stumbled across this word: μελεβετζίν. I have no idea what could it mean, the closest call seems to be μαλεβίζι (as the type of wine), but I am not sure if it fits to the context (if someone is curious, I am talking about story #970 from the chapter βρικόλακες). Can somebody help?
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Greek IPTV + OTE Sport + Movie Channels (((50€ = 1 Xrono)))
admin replied to a topic in General discussion
Γεια σου φιλε μου, δοκιμασε εδω http://greekiptv.com/ -
Greek IPTV + OTE Sport + Movie Channels (((50€ = 1 Xrono)))
Spirosmarmari replied to a topic in General discussion
Γεια ενδιαφέρομαι για iptv για mag 254 Auto που είχα παλιά το έκλεισαν για γνωστούς λόγους Παίζει κάνα καινούριο με full πακέτο χωρίς παγωματα? Ευχαριστώ Σπύρος -
Αγαπητε μου φιλε καλη κυριακη
το λινκ απο το ΓΑΛΙΤΗΣ ΔΗΜΗΤΡΙΟΣ - ΤΗΣ ΝΥΧΤΑΣ ΤΑ ΕΥΑΓΓΕΛΙΑ *ΑΠΟΚΛΕΙΣΤΙΚΑ* 07/2016 δεν λειτουργει.
μηπως θα μπορουσες στο
filefactory
ενα καινουργιο λινκ,θα σου ημουν υποχρεως
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Αγαπητε μου φιλε καλη κυριακη
Εδώ είναι νέα λινκ
Σας ευχαριστώ
fazz.
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Καλημερα και Καλον Μηνα
Τι θα μπορουσα να πω περισοτερο απο ενα μεγαλο ευχαριστω για την ευγενεια και την καλοσυνη σου.
να εισαι παντα καλα φιλε μου.
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Σας ευχαριστώ αγαπητό φίλο μου -
σας ευχαριστώ για όλα !
να εισαι παντα καλα φιλε μου.
fazz.
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The original text seems to be saying that the Naasenes "have" the book (έχουσιν).
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Hippolytus of Rome in the 3rd century noted how the Gospel of the Egyptians, possessed by the Naassene sect, described changes of the soul. Hippolytus wrote about the Naassenes: How would you literally translate the underlined sentence above? Ben Smith, on his Text Excavations website, translates this so that it isn't clear if it means that the Naassenes wrote about the soul in the Gospel "According to the Egyptians", or just that the Naassenes have this book: J.H. MacMahon, in "Ante-Nicene Fathers", Vol. 5., translates it similarly: M.R. James in The Apocryphal New Testament translates it similarly: Otto Bardenhewer, in his book Patrology: The Lives and Works of the Fathers of the Church takes it to mean that the Naassenes only used the book, as opposed to authoring it: "Hippolytus says that the Naassenes made use of expressions from the Gospel of the Egyptians in defence of their theories on the soul (and the transmigration of souls?)." But G. R. Mead, in his book "Thrice Greatest Hermes", translates it to mean that the Naassenes themselves wrote this in the Gospel According to the Egyptians, meaning that they authored the book: "These variegated metamorphoses they have laid down in the Gospel superscribed 'According to the Egyptians.'" G.R. Mead commented about the Gospel's origins: "We, however, here learn that it described the matamorphoses of the soul. It was a Gospel having its origin in Egypt and suited to Egyptian modes of thought. It follows, therefore, that the doctrine of the soul's transformation was Egyptian."
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Καλο ταξιδι Λαυρέντη
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meaculpaksk changed their profile photo
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Το ραδιόφωνο ενώνει ανθρώπους. Η μουσική ''ξυπνάει'' αισθήματα και μας φέρνει αναμνήσεις.Το 1ο Ερασιτεχνικό Πρόγραμμα Γαργαλιάνων παίζει ελληνικές μουσικές επιλογές 24/7. με non stop / mix απο τον τρελλό των fm. Προσεχώς ξανά στο μικρόφωνο με ''ζωντανές'' εκπομπές. Μπορείτε να κάνετε ακρόαση στην ''πηγή'' εδώ => https://trelostonfm.blogspot.com/ Εδώ => https://multiradio.gr/?listen=1536 Αλλά και από το Live24.gr => http://live24.gr/radio/generic.jsp?sid=3440 και από το magicstreams.gr => http://portal.magicstreams.gr/radio/1o_erasitexnko_programma_gargalianwn 888 ευχές.
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The Christian Sibylline Oracles are a set of Christian poems written in Greek in the style of pagan oracles. The original pagan Sibylline oracles are lost to us except for some fragments. The oracles that have survived in a complete form were composed or edited by Christian writers in 80-250 AD. Those surviving 14 "Books" / Volumes of the Sibylline Oracles, translated by Milton Terry (1899), along with 7 fragments found in Lactantius and Theophilus of Antioch, can be found here: http://www.sacred-texts.com/cla/sib/ (Question 1) Why should the second half of Book VIII have been written a century after the first half as the Catholic Encyclopedia claims? Is the claim about the century-long difference based only on the supposition that the first part is from the 2nd century and Jewish, and that the second part is Christian and therefore must be written much later? The Catholic Encyclopedia suggests that Books I,II, VI,VII,VIII, XI, XII, XIII, and XIV are Christian or Christianized, and that VI,VIII,XI,XIV likely date to the 2nd to 4th centuries. For example, it says: "Book VIII offers peculiar difficulties; the first 216 verses are most likely the work of a second century AD Jew, while the latter part (verses 217-500) beginning with an acrostic on the symbolical Christian word Icthus is undoubtedly Christian, and dates most probably from the third century AD." (SOURCE: http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/13770a.htm) James Charlesworth writes in his book "The Old Testament Pseudepigrapha": (Question 2) What does the Sibylline Hexameter sound like in Greek? In translating the Sibylline Oracles, Milton Terry commented that the English language naturally fits a Pentameter structure, whereas the Greek language fits hexameter. So when he made his translation of the Oracles, he deliberately translated them into English with a Pentameter verse from the Greek original, which was in hexameter. So I would like to hear the Sibylline Oracles read in Greek hexameter. Are there recordings of this? The Karavaki blog discusses the Sibylline oracles in Greek and has excerpts from it ("Ποιές ήταν οι Σίβυλλες; Τι έλεγαν για τον Αδάμ και τον Χριστό; Ο χρησμός του Απόλλωνα", 12/01/2014, LINK: https://karavaki.wordpress.com/2014/01/12/sibylle/) Homer's Odyssey and Iliad were written in Hexameter. The first 21 lines of Homer's Odyssey is read here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=d39VrPwBGkQ Excerpts from the Iliad can be heard here: https://www.podium-arts.com/3346/iliad-excerpts-16-feb-15/ Prof. Leonard Mueller explains Dactylic Hexameter and gives a reading here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=G4trBxZyjkk I don't know if the following songs actually quote the Sibyl: Maria Farantouri's song "Oracles of the Sibyl": https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1mC6k5wBrS4 Her 2011 performance of the song: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QGa06iFcqtk Merlin Beggar's "Son of the Sybil" song: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=G26WoSqpiGw Nenas Venetsanou's 1982 "Oracles of the Sybil": https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pqqMB4hSa70 (Question 3) What other early Christian writings besides the Sibylline Oracles described the "cessation of prophets"? Book I of the Christian Sibyllines appears to describe the foundation of the church of the Christians who follow the New Covenant, then the leading of the church by the apostles, then maybe the killing or suppression of the apostles by governments, then the defeat of the Judean rebels and looting of Judea by Rome's armies, all of which happened in the 1st century: Charlesworth ascribes the looting by the Romans in the final verse above to what occurred under Vespasian in c. 70 AD. Peter, Paul, and James had been killed earlier, in c.62-63 AD. So I get the sense that the passage means that the "prophets" ceased (eg. with the deaths of leading apostles like Paul, Peter, and James), then a Roman leader (ie. Vespasian) destroyed and looted the Temple. The best example of early writings describing the Cessation of prophets that comes to mind is the commentary by St. John Chrysostom or St. Augustine that in the beginning period of Christianity's spread, miracles and signs were used, but that after the Church got founded and strong enough, the Church switched to emphasizing reason and logic to spread its message. (Question 4) How should a good person address this personal and emotional challenge of dealing with past trauma? Book II of the Sibyllines says, "Do not vex thy heart With evils that are past; for what is done Can never be undone." This is hard because there is trauma that has been done to people and even if one doesn't desire revenge, the trauma can still be hard to deal with. Consider for example how in Revelation, the martyrs cry out to God for justice. (Question 5) Can you please explain William Deane's sentence below about editors adding in verses? William Deane writes in his book "Pseudepigrapha" about Book IV of the Christian Sibylline Oracles: Does Deane mean that an epilogue in Book IV was copied in a longer form into the Apostolic Constitutions and that afterwards the editors of Book IV ("the latter"?) inserted this longer form into Book IV, thinking that the Apostolic Constitutions were sufficient authority for the insertion? (Question 6) Have you heard of the idea that Christ's cross was taken to heaven, which is mentioned in Book 6? Book VI has an address to the Cross: James Charlesworth writes in his book "The Old Testament Pseudepigrapha" regarding this passage: "The idea expressed in verse 37, that the cross would be taken up to heaven, was popular in later Christian writings."(For this he cites: Rzach-Wissowa 2A, col. 2141.)
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Αγαπητε μου φιλε καλο μεσημερι
πως θα μπορουσα να εχω τα ... Alexandra Gravas — Songbook 1 & 2 (2013-2018)
θα σου ημουν υποχρεως.
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Yes, I guess this could be translated as "this darkness is an eclipse"
